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Medically reviewed by Prof. Dr. Hashim AL MAHMUD — MD - FRCS
GMC Licensed - DHA Certified · Reviewed Oct 2026 · Editorial policy

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset severe abdominal pain and hypotension (BP 82/54 mmHg). He has a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. His INR is 3.2. A non-contrast CT scan of the abdomen is performed, which shows a hyperdense thrombus in the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) but no bowel wall thickening or pneumatosis. The radiology resident suggests immediate CT angiography (CTA) to confirm the diagnosis before any intervention. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Proceed with immediate CT angiography of the abdomen and pelvis.
B) Administer intravenous unfractionated heparin and arrange for urgent surgical embolectomy. ✓ Correct
C) Administer intravenous vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma to reverse the INR, then repeat the CT in 6 hours.
D) Start broad-spectrum antibiotics and obtain a gastroenterology consult for possible ischemic colitis.
Explanation:
The deciding finding is the hyperdense thrombus in the SMA on non-contrast CT in a patient with hypotension and atrial fibrillation, which is highly suggestive of acute mesenteric ischemia (AMI) due to embolus. The common alternative action, proceeding to CTA for confirmation, causes harm because it delays revascularization in a patient who is already hypotensive and at risk of bowel infarction. The best next step is immediate therapeutic anticoagulation with intravenous unfractionated heparin and urgent surgical embolectomy, as per the World Society of Emergency Surgery guidelines. Option A is wrong because CTA, while diagnostic, should not delay definitive treatment in a hemodynamically unstable patient with a high-probability non-contrast CT. Option C is wrong because reversing anticoagulation would worsen the thrombotic state and delay surgery. Option D is wrong because antibiotics and gastroenterology consult are not definitive for arterial occlusion and would cause further delay.
References: World Society of Emergency Surgery (WSES) guidelines on acute mesenteric ischemia, 2017.
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 32-year-old woman, 28 weeks pregnant, presents with sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. Her heart rate is 118 bpm, respiratory rate 24/min, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. She has no history of renal disease. The emergency physician orders a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to rule out pulmonary embolism. The radiology resident notes that the patient is pregnant and suggests a V/Q scan instead. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Perform a V/Q scan as it has lower radiation exposure to the fetus.
B) Proceed with CTPA as it is the first-line imaging modality in pregnancy.
C) Perform a lower extremity Doppler ultrasound first to avoid fetal radiation.
D) Delay imaging until after delivery to avoid any radiation risk.
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Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 45-year-old man with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with sudden-onset severe headache described as 'thunderclap'. He is alert and oriented, with a blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg and no focal neurological deficits. A non-contrast CT of the head is performed within 2 hours of symptom onset and is reported as normal. The emergency physician considers a lumbar puncture (LP) to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Proceed with lumbar puncture immediately.
B) Perform CT angiography (CTA) of the brain.
C) Admit for observation and repeat CT in 12 hours.
D) Start empirical antibiotics for meningitis.
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Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with sudden-onset left-sided weakness and aphasia. Her blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg, and her blood glucose is 12.3 mmol/L. A non-contrast CT of the head shows no hemorrhage. The stroke team decides to administer intravenous alteplase. The radiology resident notes that the patient had a recent colonoscopy with biopsy 5 days ago. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Proceed with intravenous alteplase as the benefit outweighs the risk.
B) Withhold alteplase and perform mechanical thrombectomy if a large vessel occlusion is present.
C) Administer aspirin instead of alteplase.
D) Delay treatment for 24 hours and repeat CT.
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Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 55-year-old man presents with severe right flank pain and hematuria. He is afebrile, with a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg and a serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL). A non-contrast CT of the abdomen shows a 6 mm obstructing stone in the right proximal ureter with moderate hydronephrosis. The urology team plans for urgent ureteroscopy. The radiology resident suggests a contrast-enhanced CT to better define the stone. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Proceed with contrast-enhanced CT as it provides better anatomical detail.
B) Proceed with urgent ureteroscopy without further imaging.
C) Administer intravenous ketorolac and discharge with outpatient follow-up.
D) Perform a MAG3 renal scan to assess obstruction.
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Specialist Diagnostic Radiology (SDR6042) Questions for DHA Speciality — FAQ

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