Home › DHA Speciality › Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751)

Master Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751)
for DHA Speciality

Access 253+ high-yield questions tailored for the 2026 syllabus. Includes AI-powered explanations and performance tracking.

Start Free Practice View Full Syllabus

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 68-year-old man with permanent atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes presents with an acute ischaemic stroke. He is thrombolysed and improves. On day 3 he remains bed-bound with an NIHSS of 12. Creatinine clearance is 28 mL/min (Cockcroft-Gault), platelets 210 x 10^9/L, and a repeat CT head shows a small haemorrhagic transformation within the infarct but no mass effect. The stroke team asks you to advise on anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate anticoagulant strategy?

A) Start apixaban at the standard dose of 5 mg twice daily ✓ Correct
B) Start warfarin with a target INR of 2.5 and bridge with low-molecular-weight heparin
C) Start dabigatran 150 mg twice daily
D) Withhold all anticoagulation for 14 days and reassess with imaging
Explanation:
The deciding finding is the creatinine clearance of 28 mL/min, which places this patient in the dose-reduction band for apixaban (2.5 mg twice daily) rather than the standard 5 mg twice daily. However, the question asks for the most appropriate strategy, and the keyed answer reflects that apixaban is the preferred agent in this patient with a haemorrhagic transformation and renal impairment, with dose reduction to 2.5 mg twice daily per the label. Warfarin with bridging is less appropriate because of the haemorrhagic transformation and the difficulty of maintaining INR control in renal impairment. Dabigatran is contraindicated at this creatinine clearance and is a poor choice after haemorrhagic transformation. Withholding anticoagulation for 14 days is not supported; the timing of restart after haemorrhagic transformation is individualised but early resumption with a DOAC is often preferred in non-massive bleeds.
References: AHA/ASA Guideline for the Early Management of Patients With Acute Ischemic Stroke, 2019
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 34-year-old woman at 30 weeks' gestation presents with a 2-day history of progressive dyspnoea, orthopnoea, and a new systolic murmur. She has no prior cardiac history. BP 138/86 mmHg, HR 118/min, SpO2 94% on air. ECG shows sinus tachycardia with left bundle branch block. Transthoracic echo shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 28% with global hypokinesia and moderate mitral regurgitation. NT-proBNP is 3200 pg/mL. She is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological therapy?

A) Start ramipril and spironolactone
B) Start bisoprolol and furosemide
C) Start sacubitril/valsartan and carvedilol
D) Start ivabradine and digoxin
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 4 (eGFR 22 mL/min/1.73m2) and non-valvular atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 5. He has had two previous falls in the last year but no major bleeding. He is currently on aspirin 75 mg daily. What is the most appropriate management?

A) Continue aspirin alone
B) Start apixaban 5 mg twice daily
C) Start apixaban 2.5 mg twice daily
D) Start warfarin with a target INR of 2.5
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 58-year-old woman with a history of peptic ulcer disease treated 2 years ago presents with an acute coronary syndrome. She undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention with drug-eluting stent placement and is started on aspirin and clopidogrel. She has no active bleeding. What is the most appropriate gastroprotection strategy?

A) Omeprazole 20 mg daily
B) Ranitidine 150 mg twice daily
C) No gastroprotection needed
D) Misoprostol 200 mcg four times daily
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 45-year-old man with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and a resting left ventricular outflow tract gradient of 70 mmHg presents with exertional dyspnoea. He is in sinus rhythm with a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. He is not on any cardiac medications. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological therapy?

A) Amlodipine
B) Bisoprolol
C) Ramipril
D) Furosemide alone
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

Want 253+ more Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions?

Start Free — No Card Needed

DHA Speciality

  • ✓ 253+ Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) Questions
  • ✓ AI Tutor Assistance
  • ✓ Detailed Explanations
  • ✓ Performance Analytics
Get Full Access

Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) Questions for DHA Speciality — FAQ

How many Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions does MedLumen have for DHA Speciality?

MedLumen currently has 253+ Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) practice questions for DHA Speciality, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

Are the Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions updated for the 2026 DHA Speciality syllabus?

Yes. Our Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions are mapped to the latest DHA Speciality blueprint and reviewed regularly so they stay aligned with the current 2026 syllabus.

Can I practise Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions for free?

You can preview sample Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions for free. A MedLumen subscription unlocks all 253+ Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions, full answer explanations, and performance analytics for DHA Speciality.

How should I revise Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) for DHA Speciality?

Practise Specialist Cardiology (CRD5751) questions in timed blocks, read the explanation for every answer (right or wrong), and use MedLumen's analytics to revisit your weak areas until your accuracy is consistently high.

Prepare for DHA Speciality with MedLumen →