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Medically reviewed by Prof. Dr. Hashim AL MAHMUD — MD - FRCS
GMC Licensed - DHA Certified · Reviewed Oct 2026 · Editorial policy

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 34-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 6 hours after a witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He is drowsy but rousable, with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 (E3 V4 M6). His pupils are equal and reactive, and there is no focal neurological deficit. He has a known history of epilepsy and takes sodium valproate. His blood ethanol concentration is 280 mg/dL (60.8 mmol/L). A non-contrast CT scan of the brain is reported as normal. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Discharge with outpatient neurology follow-up in 2 weeks
B) Admit for observation and treat alcohol withdrawal prophylactically ✓ Correct
C) Perform a lumbar puncture to exclude subarachnoid haemorrhage
D) Start levetiracetam as add-on therapy before discharge
Explanation:
The deciding finding is the blood ethanol concentration of 280 mg/dL with a post-ictal GCS of 13, which places the patient at high risk of alcohol withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens. The keyed option is best because standard guidance (NICE CG100, Alcohol-use disorders) recommends admission and prophylactic management of withdrawal in patients with significant intoxication and a seizure, as the current seizure may be the first withdrawal event. Option A fails because discharge is unsafe with a GCS of 13 and a potentially evolving withdrawal syndrome. Option C fails because the CT is normal and there are no meningeal signs, so lumbar puncture is not indicated. Option D fails because the seizure is likely provoked by alcohol withdrawal rather than breakthrough epilepsy, and adding an antiepileptic before addressing withdrawal is not the priority.
References: NICE Clinical Guideline CG100, Alcohol-use disorders: diagnosis and management of physical complications (topic: alcohol withdrawal seizures)
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 28-year-old woman at 32 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department after a road traffic collision. She is haemodynamically stable with a blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 beats/min. She has no abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding. Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) is negative. The obstetric team requests a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to exclude occult injury. Which is the most appropriate action?

A) Proceed with CT abdomen and pelvis as requested
B) Perform MRI of the abdomen and pelvis instead
C) Admit for 24-hour observation with cardiotocography and serial haemoglobin
D) Discharge with obstetric follow-up in 48 hours
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is found unresponsive at home. On arrival, his blood pressure is 210/110 mmHg, heart rate 88 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6 (E1 V1 M4). His pupils are pinpoint and symmetric. A non-contrast CT of the brain shows a small pontine haemorrhage. His family reports he was prescribed a new medication 3 days ago for neuropathic pain. Which is the most likely culprit?

A) Amitriptyline
B) Gabapentin
C) Tramadol
D) Duloxetine
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 45-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after ingesting 30 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg (15 g) 4 hours ago. She weighs 70 kg. She has a history of anorexia nervosa with a body mass index of 16 kg/m2. Her serum paracetamol concentration at 4 hours is 120 mg/L (0.79 mmol/L). Her liver function tests are normal. Which is the most appropriate management?

A) Administer N-acetylcysteine immediately
B) Repeat paracetamol level at 8 hours and treat if above the treatment line
C) Administer activated charcoal
D) Discharge with psychiatric follow-up
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 70-year-old man is admitted with a fractured neck of femur after a fall. He is scheduled for surgery. His medications include warfarin for atrial fibrillation. His INR on admission is 4.8. The anaesthetist asks for your advice on reversing the anticoagulation before surgery. Which is the most appropriate agent?

A) Fresh frozen plasma
B) Prothrombin complex concentrate
C) Vitamin K intravenously
D) Platelet transfusion
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Specialist Forensic Medicine (FRM5161) Questions for DHA Speciality — FAQ

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