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Master Specialist Community Medicine (SCO6012)
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Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 28-year-old woman attends a community sexual health clinic at 10 weeks' gestation requesting influenza vaccination. She has no fever, no respiratory symptoms, and her pregnancy is uncomplicated. She reports a documented anaphylactic reaction to neomycin, which is present in some influenza vaccine formulations. She has never received influenza vaccine before. Vital signs are normal: BP 112/70 mmHg, HR 78/min, temperature 36.8?C. What is the most appropriate management?

A) Administer the standard inactivated influenza vaccine without further assessment
B) Withhold influenza vaccination until after delivery
C) Refer to an allergist for vaccine allergy evaluation before considering influenza vaccination ✓ Correct
D) Administer the live attenuated influenza vaccine instead
Explanation:
The deciding finding is the documented anaphylactic reaction to neomycin, a vaccine excipient, which is a contraindication to influenza vaccines containing that component and requires specialist allergy assessment rather than routine administration. NICE and JCVI guidance on vaccination in pregnancy recommend inactivated influenza vaccine for all pregnant women, but known anaphylaxis to a vaccine component mandates allergy evaluation and possible use of a neomycin-free formulation under supervision. Option A is unsafe because it ignores a documented excipient anaphylaxis. Option B is wrong because pregnancy itself is an indication for influenza vaccination, not a reason to withhold it. Option D is contraindicated in pregnancy because the live attenuated vaccine is not licensed for use in pregnant women.
References: NICE and JCVI: Influenza vaccination in pregnancy and vaccine contraindications (Green Book chapter on influenza).
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and a history of myocardial infarction is reviewed in a community cardiology clinic. His current medications include aspirin, atorvastatin, metformin, and ramipril. His blood pressure is 138/84 mmHg, HbA1c is 7.2%, and eGFR is 62 mL/min/1.73m?. He has no history of bleeding, peptic ulcer, or stroke. He asks about adding a second antiplatelet agent for cardiovascular protection. What is the most appropriate management?

A) Add clopidogrel to aspirin indefinitely for secondary prevention
B) Continue aspirin monotherapy and optimise other risk factors
C) Switch aspirin to warfarin for long-term cardiovascular protection
D) Add dipyridamole to aspirin for secondary prevention
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Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 32-year-old woman is seen in a community antenatal clinic at 36 weeks' gestation. She has a history of a previous caesarean section and now requests external cephalic version (ECV) for a breech presentation. She has had no vaginal bleeding, her membranes are intact, and ultrasound shows a single fetus with normal amniotic fluid. Her blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, and cardiotocography is normal. What is the most appropriate management?

A) Proceed with ECV as requested
B) Offer ECV only after 39 weeks
C) Advise against ECV and plan caesarean section
D) Refer for immediate caesarean section
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Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 4 (eGFR 22 mL/min/1.73m?) attends a community diabetes clinic. His HbA1c is 7.8% on metformin and gliclazide. He has no history of heart failure, and his blood pressure is 142/86 mmHg. His clinician considers adding a sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor. What is the most appropriate management?

A) Start an SGLT2 inhibitor for glycaemic and renal protection
B) Avoid SGLT2 inhibitors and continue current therapy
C) Start an SGLT2 inhibitor only if eGFR falls below 20 mL/min/1.73m?
D) Switch gliclazide to pioglitazone
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Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 45-year-old woman presents to a community clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain. She is 20 weeks pregnant. She has no fever, no flank pain, and no vaginal discharge. Urinalysis shows nitrites and leucocytes. Her temperature is 36.9?C, BP 110/70 mmHg, and she has no allergies. What is the most appropriate management?

A) Prescribe nitrofurantoin for 7 days
B) Prescribe trimethoprim for 7 days
C) Prescribe ciprofloxacin for 3 days
D) Advise increased fluids and review in 48 hours
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Specialist Community Medicine (SCO6012) Questions for DHA Speciality — FAQ

How many Specialist Community Medicine (SCO6012) questions does MedLumen have for DHA Speciality?

MedLumen currently has 282+ Specialist Community Medicine (SCO6012) practice questions for DHA Speciality, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

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