Master Specialist Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation (PHY5261)
for DHA Speciality

A 58-year-old man with a 6-month history of atraumatic right shoulder pain and restricted passive external rotation is referred for rehabilitation. He has type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 8.9%), hypertension, and a body mass index of 34 kg/m². Examination shows global restriction of passive range of motion, worst in external rotation, with no weakness. Plain radiographs are normal. The referring team has requested an intra-articular corticosteroid injection as first-line treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old man with a 6-month history of atraumatic right shoulder pain and restricted passive external rotation is referred for rehabilitation. He has type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 8.9%), hypertension, and a body mass index of 34 kg/m?. Examination shows global restriction of passive range of motion, worst in external rotation, with no weakness. Plain radiographs are normal. The referring team has requested an intra-articular corticosteroid injection as the first-line treatment. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 34-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant and presents with a 3-week history of progressive low back pain radiating to the left leg, with subjective numbness in the L5 distribution. Straight leg raise is positive at 45? on the left. She has no red flags, no saddle anaesthesia, and normal lower limb power and reflexes. MRI shows a left L4/L5 disc protrusion without cauda equina compression. She asks about treatment. Which is the most appropriate first-line management?

A 72-year-old woman is admitted to a rehabilitation unit 10 days after a left total hip replacement. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease and is on aspirin 75 mg daily. She develops new right calf pain and swelling. Doppler ultrasound confirms a proximal deep vein thrombosis in the right popliteal vein. She weighs 68 kg and has an eGFR of 55 mL/min/1.73 m?. Which is the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy?

A 45-year-old man with a T6 ASIA A spinal cord injury sustained 8 weeks ago is undergoing inpatient rehabilitation. He reports new-onset severe headache, sweating, and a pounding sensation in his head. His blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg, and his baseline is 110/70 mmHg. He has a suprapubic catheter in situ. Which is the most appropriate immediate management?