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HIGH YIELD NOTES Updated June 2026 · ~5 min read

Core Concepts

Hematopathology is the specialized diagnosis of diseases of blood, bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus. It encompasses neoplastic (leukemias, lymphomas, plasma cell dyscrasias, myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms) and non-neoplastic conditions (anemias, cytopenias/cytoses, infectious processes). The World Health Organization (WHO) classification is the cornerstone for diagnosis and prognostication. Diagnosis relies on a multi-modality approach integrating morphology, immunophenotyping (flow cytometry, immunohistochemistry), cytogenetics (karyotyping, FISH), and molecular studies (PCR, NGS) to establish lineage, clonality, specific genetic abnormalities, and prognosis.

Clinical Presentation

  • General/B symptoms: Unexplained fever, drenching night sweats, significant weight loss.
  • Cytopenias:
    • Anemia: Fatigue, pallor, dyspnea.
    • Thrombocytopenia: Bruising, petechiae, mucosal bleeding.
    • Neutropenia: Recurrent or severe infections.
  • Cytoses:
    • Leukocytosis: Hyperviscosity symptoms (headache, vision changes), splenomegaly.
    • Thrombocytosis: Thrombosis or paradoxical bleeding.
  • Organomegaly: Lymphadenopathy (localized/generalized), splenomegaly, hepatomegaly.
  • Bone pain/fractures: Especially in plasma cell dyscrasias.
  • Mass lesions: Extranodal lymphoma, extramedullary hematopoiesis.

Diagnosis (Gold Standard)

The gold standard involves an integrated diagnostic approach. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy are critical for most leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS), myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN), and plasma cell dyscrasias, providing assessment of cellularity, blast percentage, presence of dysplasia, fibrosis, and abnormal infiltrates. For lymphoma, an excisional lymph node biopsy is paramount to evaluate architectural effacement and cellular morphology. Flow cytometry on blood, bone marrow, or fresh tissue provides immunophenotypic details for lineage assignment, clonality, and aberrant antigen expression, crucial for acute leukemias, chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), and multiple myeloma (MM). Immunohistochemistry (IHC) on fixed tissue sections complements flow cytometry, identifying specific markers (e.g., CD30 for Hodgkin lymphoma, cyclin D1 for MCL, myeloperoxidase for AML). Cytogenetics (karyotyping, FISH) identifies chromosomal aberrations diagnostic and prognostic for many entities (e.g., t(9;22) in CML/ALL, t(15;17) in APL, del(5q) in MDS). Molecular diagnostics (PCR, NGS) detects gene mutations or rearrangements (e.g., JAK2 in MPN, NPM1/FLT3-ITD in AML, IGHV mutation status in CLL) vital for subclassification, prognosis, and guiding targeted therapies.

Management (First Line)

Management is highly personalized and dictated by precise pathological diagnosis and risk stratification. The pathologist's role is to provide the comprehensive diagnosis that enables appropriate therapeutic decision-making. Specific genetic abnormalities (e.g., t(15;17) in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia, APL) directly indicate targeted therapy (all-trans retinoic acid - ATRA). Risk stratification systems (e.g., IPSS-R for MDS, R-ISS for MM, FLIPI for follicular lymphoma) integrate pathological findings with clinical parameters to guide intensity of therapy (watch-and-wait, conventional chemotherapy, targeted agents, or stem cell transplant). Pathologists also monitor minimal residual disease (MRD) via highly sensitive flow cytometry or molecular techniques (e.g., BCR-ABL transcript levels in CML) to assess treatment response and detect impending relapse, guiding therapy adjustments.

Exam Red Flags

  • Blast count: Always confirm if blast percentage meets the WHO 20% threshold for acute leukemia.
  • Inadequate sample: "Dry tap" bone marrow should prompt consideration of myelofibrosis or hairy cell leukemia; fragmented lymph node biopsy for lymphoma diagnosis is often non-diagnostic.
  • APL suspicion: Recognize clinical presentation (DIC) and immediate need for t(15;17) or PML-RARA testing, even before full workup.
  • Myelodysplastic features: Systematically look for dysplasia in ≥10% of cells in ≥1 myeloid lineage for MDS diagnosis.
  • Clonality: Ensure robust evidence of clonality for lymphoid neoplasms (e.g., light chain restriction, TCR gene rearrangement).
  • HLH vs. Malignancy: Be aware of the diagnostic criteria for Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis, as it can mimic hematologic malignancy.
  • Plasma cell dyscrasias: Distinguish MGUS from smoldering and active myeloma (CRAB criteria).

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 58-year-old man with newly diagnosed diffuse large B-cell lymphoma receives his first cycle of R-CHOP. On day 10 post-chemotherapy he presents with fever of 38.6?C, absolute neutrophil count 0.3 x 109/L, and a new dry cough. Chest X-ray is unremarkable. He has no known drug allergies and his renal function is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Await blood culture results before starting antibiotics
B) Start empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately after cultures are drawn ✓ Correct
C) Start oral fluconazole alone
D) Administer granulocyte colony-stimulating factor and reassess in 24 hours
Explanation:
The deciding finding is febrile neutropenia (fever >=38.3?C with ANC
References: IDSA Clinical Practice Guideline for the Use of Antimicrobial Agents in Neutropenic Patients with Cancer (2010, updated); also StatPearls, NCBI Bookshelf, 'Febrile Neutropenia'.
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 34-year-old woman with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) has failed corticosteroids and IVIG. She is started on eltrombopag. Two weeks later she presents with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and dark urine. Labs: ALT 480 U/L, AST 410 U/L, total bilirubin 4.2 mg/dL, platelet count 45 x 109/L. She is not pregnant and has no history of alcohol use. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Continue eltrombopag and monitor liver enzymes weekly
B) Discontinue eltrombopag and start high-dose corticosteroids
C) Discontinue eltrombopag and initiate urgent hepatology referral for possible drug-induced liver injury
D) Reduce eltrombopag dose by 50% and recheck in one week
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 62-year-old man with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is started on ibrutinib. Four weeks later he develops new-onset atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate of 148 bpm. He is hemodynamically stable. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3. He is not on any anticoagulant. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Continue ibrutinib and start rate-control therapy only
B) Discontinue ibrutinib permanently and switch to idelalisib
C) Hold ibrutinib, manage atrial fibrillation, and initiate anticoagulation based on stroke risk
D) Continue ibrutinib and start amiodarone for rhythm control
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 28-year-old woman with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is started on eculizumab. She has not received meningococcal vaccination because of an allergy to the vaccine components. Two weeks later she presents with fever of 39.2?C, headache, neck stiffness, and a petechial rash. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A) Start empiric ceftriaxone and urgently consult infectious diseases
B) Withhold antibiotics until lumbar puncture is performed
C) Discontinue eculizumab and start acyclovir
D) Administer meningococcal vaccine now and observe
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 45-year-old man with multiple myeloma is receiving bortezomib-based therapy. He develops painful paresthesias and burning in both feet, with reduced vibration sense. He has no diabetes and no alcohol history. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Continue bortezomib at the same dose and add gabapentin
B) Discontinue bortezomib and switch to lenalidomide-based therapy
C) Reduce bortezomib dose by 25% and continue
D) Add duloxetine and continue bortezomib
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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