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Medically reviewed by Prof. Dr. Hashim AL MAHMUD — MD - FRCS
GMC Licensed - DHA Certified · Reviewed Oct 2026 · Editorial policy
HIGH YIELD NOTES Updated June 2026 · ~5 min read

Core Concepts

Sepsis & Septic Shock: Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection (Sepsis-3 definition). Septic shock is sepsis with persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain MAP ≥65 mmHg and a serum lactate level >2 mmol/L despite adequate fluid resuscitation.
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS): Acute onset, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest imaging, severe hypoxemia (PaO2/FiO2 ratio ≤300 mmHg) not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload (Berlin definition).
Shock: Syndrome of acute circulatory failure resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Types include hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive (e.g., septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic).
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI): Abrupt decrease in kidney function resulting in retention of nitrogenous wastes. Classified by KDIGO criteria based on serum creatinine increase or urine output decrease.
Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP): Sustained elevation of ICP >20-22 mmHg, threatening cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP = MAP - ICP) and leading to brain herniation.

Clinical Presentation

  • Systemic: Hypotension, tachycardia, altered mental status (AMS), fever or hypothermia, oliguria, generalized weakness, mottled skin.
  • Respiratory: Tachypnea, dyspnea, use of accessory muscles, hypoxemia, cyanosis, crackles/wheezes, decreased breath sounds.
  • Cardiovascular: Arrhythmias, peripheral edema, signs of fluid overload (JVP, pulmonary edema) or dehydration (poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes).
  • Neurological: Decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), focal neurological deficits, pupillary changes, posturing, seizures.
  • Gastrointestinal: Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, ileus, absent bowel sounds.
  • Renal: Oliguria (<0.5 ml/kg/hr), anuria, edema.

Diagnosis (Gold Standard)

Sepsis: Clinical suspicion with qSOFA score ≥2 (respiratory rate ≥22/min, altered mentation, systolic BP ≤100 mmHg) and/or SOFA score increase by ≥2 points, confirmed infection source, elevated lactate, positive blood cultures.
ARDS: Berlin criteria: Acute onset within 1 week of clinical insult, bilateral opacities on chest imaging (not fully explained by effusion, collapse, nodules), respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure/fluid overload, PaO2/FiO2 ≤300 mmHg with PEEP ≥5 cmH2O (or CPAP).
Shock: Clinical presentation of hypoperfusion, persistently low MAP, elevated lactate. Specific diagnosis relies on detailed hemodynamic assessment (e.g., echocardiography for cardiogenic/obstructive, CVP/ScvO2 for distributive/hypovolemic).
Increased ICP: Direct invasive ICP monitoring (intraparenchymal catheter or external ventricular drain - EVD) showing sustained pressures >20-22 mmHg. CT head identifies structural causes (hemorrhage, edema, mass lesion).

Management (First Line)

  • Resuscitation & Stabilization (ABCs):
    • Airway: Secure airway via intubation for respiratory failure, GCS <8, or airway protection.
    • Breathing: Mechanical ventilation, lung-protective strategy for ARDS (low tidal volume 4-6 ml/kg IBW, plateau pressure <30 cmH2O), optimal PEEP, maintain SpO2 90-96%.
    • Circulation: IV crystalloids (e.g., 30ml/kg for sepsis-induced hypotension), vasopressors (Norepinephrine first-line for septic shock), inotropes (Dobutamine for cardiogenic shock), target MAP >65 mmHg.
  • Sepsis Management (Within 1 hour): Measure lactate, obtain blood cultures, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics, begin rapid 30 ml/kg crystalloid for hypotension/lactate >2, apply vasopressors if hypotensive after fluids.
  • ARDS Management: Lung-protective ventilation, prone positioning for severe ARDS, neuromuscular blockers for persistent hypoxemia, judicious fluid management.
  • AKI Management: Address underlying cause, optimize hemodynamics, avoid nephrotoxic agents, manage electrolytes, initiate Renal Replacement Therapy (RRT) for refractory fluid overload, severe hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, or uremia.
  • Increased ICP Management: Elevate head-of-bed 30 degrees, maintain normothermia, sedation/analgesia (propofol, fentanyl), hyperosmolar therapy (Mannitol, hypertonic saline), maintain normocapnia (avoid hyperventilation), EVD drainage.

Exam Red Flags

  • Refractory Hypotension: Despite adequate fluids and two vasopressors – consider adrenal insufficiency, occult hemorrhage, severe cardiac failure, or anaphylaxis.
  • Sudden Deterioration in Ventilated Patient (DESAT): Think D.O.P.E. – Displaced tube, Obstructed tube (kink/mucous plug), Pneumothorax, Equipment failure. Immediate assessment for pneumothorax (absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation).
  • New Neurological Deficit or GCS Drop: Immediately rule out metabolic causes, intracranial hemorrhage (STAT CT head), seizure, or stroke.
  • Persistent Hyperlactatemia (>2 mmol/L): Indicates ongoing tissue hypoperfusion or impaired lactate clearance despite resuscitation efforts.
  • Plateau Pressure >30 cmH2O: High risk of barotrauma in mechanically ventilated patients; requires immediate adjustment of tidal volume, PEEP, or increased sedation.
  • Severe Electrolyte Imbalances: e.g., K+ >6.5 (cardiac arrest risk), Na+ <120 or >160 (neurological damage risk if corrected too rapidly or slowly).
  • Unexplained Fever in ICU: Especially in immunocompromised or post-operative patients – aggressive search for infection source (cultures, imaging).
  • Failure to Wean from Ventilation: Common multifactorial issue (cardiac dysfunction, respiratory muscle fatigue, anemia, malnutrition, delirium, sedation).

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 68-year-old man is admitted to the ICU with a 3-day history of fever, productive cough, and progressive hypoxaemia. He has a history of severe aortic stenosis with a mean gradient of 52 mmHg and an ejection fraction of 35%. On arrival his blood pressure is 78/44 mmHg, heart rate 118/min, respiratory rate 32/min, temperature 38.9?C, and SpO2 86% on a non-rebreather mask. Lactate is 4.8 mmol/L and creatinine is 210 umol/L. Chest X-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. After 30 mL/kg of crystalloid, his mean arterial pressure remains 58 mmHg. Which is the most appropriate next step in haemodynamic management?

A) Start a norepinephrine infusion to target a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg ✓ Correct
B) Start a phenylephrine infusion to target a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg
C) Give a 500 mL bolus of 5% albumin over 30 minutes
D) Insert a pulmonary artery catheter before starting any vasopressor
Explanation:
The deciding finding is severe aortic stenosis with reduced ejection fraction, which makes phenylephrine a poor choice because the resulting reflex bradycardia and increased afterload can precipitate decompensation in a fixed-obstruction lesion. Norepinephrine is the recommended first-line vasopressor in septic shock per the Surviving Sepsis Campaign, and it is also the safest vasopressor in this patient because it supports both vascular tone and cardiac contractility without the reflex bradycardia seen with pure alpha-agonists. Phenylephrine is wrong because the bradycardia and afterload increase are hazardous in aortic stenosis. Albumin is wrong because the patient has already received adequate crystalloid and remains hypotensive, indicating vasopressor-dependent shock rather than ongoing hypovolaemia. Pulmonary artery catheter insertion is wrong because it delays vasopressor therapy and routine use has not been shown to improve outcomes in septic shock.
References: Surviving Sepsis Campaign: International Guidelines for Management of Sepsis and Septic Shock (Society of Critical Care Medicine/European Society of Intensive Care Medicine).
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 34-year-old woman at 32 weeks' gestation is admitted to the ICU with a 2-day history of worsening dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She has no prior thromboembolic disease. Her heart rate is 124/min, respiratory rate 28/min, blood pressure 108/68 mmHg, and SpO2 91% on room air. Arterial blood gas shows PaO2 62 mmHg, PaCO2 28 mmHg, and pH 7.48. D-dimer is 3.2 mg/L FEU. Lower limb compression ultrasound is negative. The obstetric team requests a CT pulmonary angiogram. Which is the most appropriate next step?

A) Proceed with CT pulmonary angiogram immediately
B) Start therapeutic low-molecular-weight heparin and arrange a ventilation-perfusion scan
C) Withhold anticoagulation until the CT pulmonary angiogram result is available
D) Start therapeutic low-molecular-weight heparin and arrange CT pulmonary angiogram with abdominal shielding
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Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 72-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and pulmonary oedema. She has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 with a baseline creatinine of 280 umol/L. On examination she is orthopnoeic, has bibasal crackles to the mid-zones, and jugular venous pressure is elevated. Blood pressure is 168/92 mmHg, heart rate 96/min, and SpO2 88% on room air. She has received high-dose intravenous furosemide with minimal urine output over 6 hours. Which is the most appropriate next step?

A) Start a nitroglycerin infusion and consider renal replacement therapy for fluid removal
B) Give a further bolus of intravenous furosemide and reassess in 2 hours
C) Start dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min to improve renal perfusion
D) Start a nitroprusside infusion to reduce afterload
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Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 45-year-old man is admitted to the ICU with severe acute pancreatitis. He has a history of alcohol-related cirrhosis with a platelet count of 48 x 10^9/L and an INR of 1.9. He is haemodynamically stable, has a heart rate of 92/min, blood pressure 118/72 mmHg, and SpO2 96% on room air. He is tolerating oral fluids and reports mild pain. The surgical team requests prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin. Which is the most appropriate decision regarding thromboprophylaxis?

A) Give prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin as requested
B) Withhold pharmacological prophylaxis and use intermittent pneumatic compression
C) Give therapeutic low-molecular-weight heparin instead of prophylactic dose
D) Insert an inferior vena cava filter for thromboprophylaxis
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Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 58-year-old man is admitted to the ICU with a 4-day history of severe community-acquired pneumonia. He has a documented severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin as a child. He is febrile at 39.1?C, blood pressure 96/58 mmHg, respiratory rate 30/min, and SpO2 90% on 6 L/min oxygen. Chest X-ray shows bilateral multilobar consolidation. CURB-65 score is 4. Blood cultures have been taken. Which is the most appropriate empirical antibiotic regimen?

A) Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin
B) Levofloxacin plus vancomycin
C) Piperacillin-tazobactam plus clarithromycin
D) Meropenem plus gentamicin
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