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Master Specialist Plastic Surgery (PLA5671)
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Medically reviewed by Prof. Dr. Hashim AL MAHMUD — MD - FRCS

GMC Licensed - DHA Certified · Reviewed Oct 2026 · Editorial policy

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 34-year-old woman is scheduled for bilateral breast reduction for symptomatic macromastia. She has no personal history of breast cancer but her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 42 and tested positive for a BRCA2 pathogenic variant; the patient herself has not undergone genetic testing. She takes no regular medication and examination shows no suspicious breast masses. Which is the most appropriate next step in surgical planning?

A) Proceed with reduction mammaplasty as planned, since her genetic status is unknown

B) Refer for genetic counselling and BRCA testing before proceeding with reduction mammaplasty ✓ Correct

C) Cancel surgery permanently and offer bilateral risk-reducing mastectomy instead

D) Proceed with reduction but send the excised breast tissue for BRCA genotyping

Explanation:

The deciding finding is the first-degree relative with a BRCA2 pathogenic variant and young-onset breast cancer, which makes this patient eligible for genetic evaluation under NICE familial breast cancer guidance; her own status must be clarified before irreversible breast surgery. Referral for genetic counselling and testing is best because a confirmed BRCA2 carrier would be offered risk-reducing mastectomy rather than reduction, and reduction could compromise future oncological surveillance and reconstruction options. Proceeding as planned (A) ignores the unclarified hereditary risk and the possibility that reduction is the wrong operation. Permanent cancellation with immediate risk-reducing mastectomy (C) is premature because her carrier status is unknown and she has no confirmed cancer. Sending excised tissue for genotyping (D) is not a recognised pathway for germline testing and would not inform consent preoperatively.

References: NICE Clinical Guideline: Familial breast cancer - classification, care and managing breast cancer and related risks in people with a family history of breast cancer.

Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 58-year-old man is listed for elective open ventral hernia repair with mesh. He sustained a drug-eluting coronary stent insertion 5 weeks ago after an acute coronary syndrome and is currently on aspirin and ticagrelor. His cardiologist has advised that dual antiplatelet therapy must continue. Which is the most appropriate perioperative management?

A) Stop ticagrelor 5 days before surgery and continue aspirin alone

B) Stop both antiplatelet agents 7 days before surgery to reduce bleeding

C) Defer elective surgery until the minimum recommended duration of dual antiplatelet therapy has been completed

D) Proceed as scheduled while continuing dual antiplatelet therapy without modification

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Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 47-year-old woman is undergoing elective abdominoplasty. She has a history of venous thromboembolism after a previous knee arthroscopy and takes warfarin, with a target INR of 2.5. Her current INR is 2.6. She is otherwise well with normal renal function. Which is the most appropriate perioperative anticoagulation plan?

A) Proceed with surgery at the current INR of 2.6

B) Stop warfarin and give vitamin K to reverse anticoagulation immediately before surgery

C) Bridge with therapeutic low molecular weight heparin after stopping warfarin, and restart warfarin when haemostasis allows

D) Continue warfarin and give fresh frozen plasma intraoperatively

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Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 29-year-old woman at 22 weeks' gestation presents with a 3 cm basal cell carcinoma on the left cheek confirmed on biopsy. She is otherwise healthy and there is no lymphadenopathy. Which is the most appropriate management?

A) Defer all treatment until after delivery to avoid any fetal risk

B) Proceed with surgical excision under local anaesthesia now

C) Treat with topical imiquimod to avoid surgery during pregnancy

D) Refer for radiotherapy to avoid an operation during pregnancy

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Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and an HbA1c of 9.4% is scheduled for elective free flap reconstruction of a leg wound. He takes metformin and gliclazide. His renal function is normal. Which is the most appropriate preoperative action?

A) Proceed with surgery as scheduled, as glycaemic control does not affect flap outcomes

B) Optimise glycaemic control and defer elective surgery until HbA1c is improved

C) Stop metformin on the morning of surgery and proceed

D) Convert him to an insulin sliding scale and proceed the same week

💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Specialist Plastic Surgery (PLA5671) Questions for DHA Speciality — FAQ

How many Specialist Plastic Surgery (PLA5671) questions does MedLumen have for DHA Speciality?

MedLumen currently has 258+ Specialist Plastic Surgery (PLA5671) practice questions for DHA Speciality, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

Are the Specialist Plastic Surgery (PLA5671) questions updated for the 2026 DHA Speciality syllabus?

Yes. Our Specialist Plastic Surgery (PLA5671) questions are mapped to the latest DHA Speciality blueprint and reviewed regularly so they stay aligned with the current 2026 syllabus.

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