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Master Specialist Medical Microbiology (MIC5251)
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Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 34-year-old woman at 30 weeks' gestation presents with a 3-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and right flank pain. She is febrile at 38.9?C, BP 105/65 mmHg, HR 108/min. Urinalysis shows nitrites and leukocyte esterase; urine culture is pending. She has no drug allergies and normal renal function (creatinine 62 umol/L). She is haemodynamically stable and not in preterm labour. Which is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic?

A) Oral ciprofloxacin
B) Intravenous gentamicin monotherapy
C) Intravenous ceftriaxone ✓ Correct
D) Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Explanation:
The deciding finding is pregnancy at 30 weeks, which excludes the usual first-line agents for pyelonephritis (fluoroquinolones and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) because of fetal toxicity. Third-generation cephalosporins such as ceftriaxone are the recommended empiric choice for pyelonephritis in pregnancy, covering the common Gram-negative uropathogens safely. Ciprofloxacin is avoided in pregnancy due to concerns about cartilage and tendon development in the fetus. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is contraindicated near term because of kernicterus risk and folate antagonism. Gentamicin monotherapy is not first-line for pyelonephritis because of incomplete Gram-negative coverage and nephrotoxicity risk without a beta-lactam backbone.
References: NICE guideline NG111, Pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and a prosthetic mitral valve presents with 5 days of fever, malaise, and a new systolic murmur. Blood cultures grow Staphylococcus aureus in both bottles at 14 hours. He has no known drug allergies. Transthoracic echocardiography is non-diagnostic. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Start vancomycin and await transoesophageal echocardiography
B) Start flucloxacillin and request transoesophageal echocardiography urgently
C) Start ceftriaxone and repeat blood cultures in 48 hours
D) Start gentamicin monotherapy and obtain a transoesophageal echocardiogram
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Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 24-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of profuse watery diarrhoea after returning from Bangladesh. He is afebrile, BP 100/60 mmHg, HR 110/min, and has passed 8 stools in 24 hours. Stool microscopy shows no leukocytes; stool culture is pending. He has no allergies and normal renal function. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

A) Oral ciprofloxacin
B) Oral azithromycin
C) Oral rehydration therapy alone
D) Intravenous ceftriaxone
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Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 45-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus on prednisolone 20 mg daily and mycophenolate presents with 2 weeks of headache, fever, and neck stiffness. CSF shows lymphocytic pleocytosis (120 cells/uL), raised protein, and low glucose. India ink stain is positive. She has no allergies and normal renal function. Which is the most appropriate initial therapy?

A) Intravenous fluconazole
B) Intravenous liposomal amphotericin B plus flucytosine
C) Intravenous ceftriaxone plus vancomycin
D) Oral itraconazole
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Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 28 mL/min/1.73m?) presents with a 4-day history of fever, cough, and pleuritic chest pain. Chest X-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. He has no allergies. Which is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic?

A) Amoxicillin-clavulanate plus clarithromycin
B) Levofloxacin monotherapy
C) Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin
D) Doxycycline monotherapy
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Specialist Medical Microbiology (MIC5251) Questions for DHA Speciality — FAQ

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MedLumen currently has 259+ Specialist Medical Microbiology (MIC5251) practice questions for DHA Speciality, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

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