HomeMSRACPS - Infectious Disease/Haematology

Master CPS - Infectious Disease/Haematology
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Medically reviewed by Dr. Kainat Bashir — MBBS, MCPS (Emergency Medicine), MRCP (UK)
GMC,AMC,Board Certified · Reviewed Jun 2026 · Editorial policy
HIGH YIELD NOTES Updated June 2026 · ~5 min read

What the MSRA Tests in CPS - Infectious Disease/Haematology

This exam tests the ability to manage common infectious disease and haematology presentations in primary care and emergency settings, with emphasis on recognition of serious pathology (e.g., sepsis, meningitis, neutropenic sepsis, sickle cell crisis) and appropriate use of investigations (FBC, blood film, coagulation screen, CRP, procalcitonin, blood cultures, lumbar puncture). Candidates must know UK guidelines for antibiotic prescribing (e.g., NICE for pneumonia, UTIs, cellulitis), vaccination schedules, and management of HIV, TB, and hepatitis. In haematology, focus is on anaemia (iron, B12, folate, haemolytic), clotting disorders (DVT/PE, ITP, DIC, haemophilia), and haematological malignancies (leukaemia, lymphoma, myeloma) including red flag symptoms and first-line treatments. Decision-making about when to refer, start anticoagulation, or give blood products is critical.

High-Yield Concepts

  • Sepsis recognition and management: Use NEWS2 score ≥5 triggers sepsis screening. For sepsis with suspected source, give IV broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour (e.g., piperacillin-tazobactam if hospital-acquired; ceftriaxone if community-acquired). Lactate >2 mmol/L indicates tissue hypoperfusion; give 30 mL/kg crystalloid bolus if lactate >4 or hypotensive.
  • Meningitis and meningococcal disease: Classic triad: fever, neck stiffness, altered consciousness. Petechial/purpuric rash suggests meningococcal sepsis. Give IV ceftriaxone 2 g (or cefotaxime) immediately before CT if no delay. Dexamethasone 10 mg IV before or with first antibiotic dose if suspected bacterial meningitis. Do not perform lumbar puncture if signs of raised ICP (papilloedema, focal neurology, GCS <13).
  • Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) severity assessment: Use CURB-65: Confusion (AMTS ≤8), Urea >7 mmol/L, RR ≥30, BP <90/60, age ≥65. Score 0-1: home oral amoxicillin 500 mg TDS (or doxycycline if penicillin-allergic). Score 2: consider hospital admission, oral or IV antibiotics. Score ≥3: severe CAP, admit, IV co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin (or levofloxacin if penicillin-allergic).
  • Neutropenic sepsis: Temperature ≥38°C in patient with neutrophil count <0.5 x10^9/L. Immediate IV piperacillin-tazobactam (or meropenem if severe penicillin allergy) within 1 hour. Take blood cultures, start empirical antifungal if persistent fever >96 hours. G-CSF not routinely recommended unless predicted prolonged neutropenia.
  • Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE): Use Wells score for DVT (≥2 points likely) and PE (≥4 points likely). If likely, request D-dimer (age-adjusted: age x 0.1 mg/L if >50 years) and proximal leg ultrasound or CTPA. First-line treatment: DOAC (apixaban 10 mg BD for 7 days then 5 mg BD, or rivaroxaban 15 mg BD for 21 days then 20 mg OD) unless cancer-associated (then LMWH).
  • Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA): Microcytic hypochromic anaemia with low ferritin (<30 ng/mL). Check for GI source: coeliac serology, upper and lower GI endoscopy if no obvious cause (especially men and postmenopausal women). Treatment: oral ferrous sulfate 200 mg OD (or ferrous fumarate) for 3 months; recheck FBC and ferritin. IV iron (ferric carboxymaltose) if intolerance, non-adherence, or severe anaemia.
  • Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP): Isolated thrombocytopenia (<100 x10^9/L) with normal WBC and Hb. Exclude drug-induced, HIV, HCV, SLE. First-line: prednisolone 1 mg/kg OD for 2-4 weeks then taper. If bleeding or platelet <10-20 x10^9/L, consider IVIG 1 g/kg. Second-line: thrombopoietin receptor agonists (eltrombopag, romiplostim) or rituximab.
  • Multiple myeloma – CRAB criteria and first-line treatment: CRAB: hyperCalcaemia (corrected Ca >2.75 mmol/L), Renal impairment (creatinine >177 μmol/L), Anaemia (Hb <100 g/L), Bone lesions (lytic on XR/MRI). Diagnosis: serum/urine protein electrophoresis, free light chains, bone marrow biopsy with >10% plasma cells. First-line for transplant-eligible: bortezomib + cyclophosphamide + dexamethasone (VCD). For non-eligible: lenalidomide + low-dose dexamethasone (Rd).

Common Traps in CPS - Infectious Disease/Haematology Questions

  • Starting antibiotics before blood cultures in sepsis without delaying care – cultures should be taken before antibiotics but antibiotics must not be delayed beyond 1 hour.
  • Using D-dimer without pre-test probability scoring – D-dimer is only useful if Wells score is 'likely' or 'unlikely' (low specificity in hospitalised patients).
  • Forgetting to check ferritin in microcytic anaemia – low ferritin is diagnostic for IDA; normal/high ferritin suggests anaemia of chronic disease or thalassaemia trait.
  • Not giving dexamethasone with first dose of antibiotics in suspected bacterial meningitis – this reduces neurological sequelae and must be given before or with the first antibiotic.
  • Assuming a normal INR excludes DIC – DIC can present with normal INR early; look for thrombocytopenia, prolonged APTT, elevated D-dimer, and low fibrinogen.
  • Treating suspected neutropenic sepsis with oral antibiotics – all febrile neutropenic patients require IV broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour.

How to Revise CPS - Infectious Disease/Haematology for the MSRA

Prioritise memorising CURB-65, Wells criteria, NEWS2 thresholds, and first-line antibiotic choices for common infections (CAP, UTI, cellulitis, meningitis). Practice applying these scores to clinical vignettes, especially deciding admission vs. home management. For haematology, focus on differentiating microcytic anaemias (IDA vs. thalassaemia trait vs. ACD) using ferritin and HbA2, and knowing when to start anticoagulation for VTE (including DOAC dosing). Questions often present as 'best next step' or 'most appropriate management' – avoid over-investigating. Review NICE guidelines for suspected cancer (NG12) regarding myeloma and lymphoma red flags. Practise interpreting FBC and coagulation results quickly.

Practise it: MedLumen has 50 CPS - Infectious Disease/Haematology questions for the MSRA, each with a full explanation and references.

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 28-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of fever, severe headache, and neck stiffness. He recently returned from a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. On examination, he is febrile (39.2°C), tachycardic, and has petechial rash on his trunk and lower extremities. Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are positive. CSF analysis shows elevated white blood cells (predominantly neutrophils), low glucose, and high protein. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A) Perform an MRI brain and then decide on treatment.
B) Administer oral acyclovir and observe.
C) Initiate intravenous ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and dexamethasone. ✓ Correct
D) Send stool culture for parasites and start empiric anti-parasitic treatment.
Explanation:
This patient presents with classic symptoms and signs of acute bacterial meningitis, including fever, headache, neck stiffness, petechial rash (suggesting meningococcal disease), and positive meningeal signs. The CSF findings (elevated WBC with neutrophil predominance, low glucose, high protein) are highly consistent with bacterial meningitis. Immediate empiric intravenous antibiotics (ceftriaxone for broad-spectrum coverage, vancomycin for potential penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae or MRSA) and dexamethasone (to reduce neurological complications) are crucial before culture results are available. Delaying treatment can lead to significant morbidity and mortality. Acyclovir is for viral encephalitis, MRI is not the first step in acute bacterial meningitis, and anti-parasitics are irrelevant here.
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 65-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and type 2 diabetes presents with sudden onset of chills, high fever (40°C), flank pain, and dysuria. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, and respiratory rate 22 bpm. Laboratory tests show WBC 18 x 10^9/L with left shift, C-reactive protein 250 mg/L, and urinalysis positive for leukocyte esterase, nitrites, and numerous bacteria. What is the most likely diagnosis and immediate priority?

A) Uncomplicated pyelonephritis; start oral ciprofloxacin.
B) Urosepsis with septic shock; initiate intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
C) Renal stone with infection; arrange for immediate CT KUB.
D) Acute appendicitis; prepare for urgent surgical consultation.
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 40-year-old male with a history of intravenous drug use (IVDU) presents with progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and night sweats over the past month. On examination, he has splinter hemorrhages, Janeway lesions on his palms, and a new pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex. His temperature is 38.5°C. Blood cultures are pending. Which of the following investigations is most crucial for confirming the suspected diagnosis?

A) CT chest with contrast.
B) Peripheral blood film.
C) Electrocardiogram (ECG).
D) Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE).
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to increasing pallor, lethargy, and easy bruising. He has had a recent viral illness. On examination, he is visibly pale, has petechiae on his trunk and limbs, and epistaxis. Laboratory results show hemoglobin 6.5 g/dL, platelets 8 x 10^9/L, and WBC 5.2 x 10^9/L (normal differential). Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
D) Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 72-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and diabetes is admitted with worsening cough, purulent sputum, and fever. He is started on intravenous antibiotics. On day 3 of admission, he develops new onset of watery diarrhea (6-8 times a day) and abdominal cramps. Stool samples are sent. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic and management step?

A) Request stool C. difficile toxin assay and consider empiric oral vancomycin if suspicion is high.
B) Immediately perform a colonoscopy to rule out inflammatory bowel disease.
C) Stop all current antibiotics and start oral metronidazole.
D) Administer loperamide for symptomatic relief and await stool culture results.
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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CPS - Infectious Disease/Haematology Questions for MSRA — FAQ

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