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Master Neurology
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Medically reviewed by Dr. Kainat Bashir — MBBS, MCPS (Emergency Medicine), MRCP (UK)
GMC,AMC,Board Certified · Reviewed Jun 2026 · Editorial policy
HIGH YIELD NOTES Updated June 2026 · ~5 min read

What the PLAB 1 Tests in Neurology

Neurology in PLAB 1 tests the ability to localise lesions, recognise common neurological emergencies, and initiate appropriate management. Candidates must differentiate stroke subtypes (ischaemic vs haemorrhagic) using the ROSIER score and know the 4.5-hour thrombolysis window for alteplase. Key presentations include headache (migraine, tension-type, cluster, subarachnoid haemorrhage), seizures (generalised vs focal, status epilepticus management with lorazepam), Parkinson’s disease (triad of tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia; first-line levodopa/carbidopa or dopamine agonists), and multiple sclerosis (relapsing-remitting, McDonald criteria, first-line interferon or glatiramer). Peripheral nerve disorders (Guillain-Barré, nerve conduction studies, IVIG or plasma exchange) and myasthenia gravis (anti-AChR antibodies, edrophonium test, pyridostigmine) are high-yield. Meningitis/encephalitis differentiation (CSF glucose, protein, WBC count) and emergency management of raised intracranial pressure (mannitol, dexamethasone) are tested.

High-Yield Concepts

  • Stroke Thrombolysis Criteria: Alteplase (0.9 mg/kg IV, max 90 mg) given within 4.5 hours of symptom onset. Exclusion: INR >1.7, platelets <100, systolic BP >185 mmHg, recent major surgery, or intracranial haemorrhage on CT. Use ROSIER score: facial droop (1), arm drift (1), speech disturbance (1) – score ≥1 suggests stroke.
  • Status Epilepticus Management: First-line: IV lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg (max 4 mg) or IM midazolam 10 mg if no IV access. Second-line: IV phenytoin 18 mg/kg (max 1 g) or levetiracetam 60 mg/kg. Refractory: propofol or thiopental with EEG monitoring. Check glucose (50 mL 50% dextrose if <3 mmol/L).
  • Meningitis CSF Findings: Bacterial: low glucose (<2.2 mmol/L), high protein (>1 g/L), neutrophil-predominant WBC (>1000 cells/µL). Viral: normal glucose, mild protein rise, lymphocytosis. Tuberculous: low glucose, very high protein, lymphocytosis. Empirical antibiotics: ceftriaxone 2 g IV plus vancomycin (if resistant pneumococcus) and dexamethasone 0.15 mg/kg before antibiotics.
  • Parkinson’s Disease First-Line Treatment: For motor symptoms: levodopa/carbidopa (co-beneldopa) is most effective. Dopamine agonists (ropinirole, pramipexole) used in younger patients (<60) to delay motor complications. Anticholinergics (procyclidine) for tremor-predominant disease. Monitor for impulse control disorders with agonists.
  • Guillain-Barré Syndrome Diagnosis and Management: Ascending flaccid paralysis, areflexia, albumin-cytologic dissociation on CSF. Nerve conduction studies show demyelination. Treatment: IVIG 0.4 g/kg/day for 5 days or plasma exchange. Monitor FVC and bulbar function; intubation if FVC <20 mL/kg or declining. Avoid steroids.
  • Myasthenia Gravis Diagnosis: Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies positive in 80%. Edrophonium (Tensilon) test: 2 mg IV test dose, then 8 mg – transient improvement in ptosis or diplopia. First-line: pyridostigmine 60 mg TDS. Thymectomy if thymoma present. Avoid aminoglycosides, beta-blockers, and magnesium.
  • Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Sudden thunderclap headache, neck stiffness, vomiting. CT head within 6 hours: sensitivity >98%. If CT negative, perform lumbar puncture for xanthochromia (bilirubin). Management: nimodipine 60 mg Q4H for 3 weeks to prevent vasospasm, neurosurgical clipping or endovascular coiling.
  • Multiple Sclerosis McDonald Criteria: Requires dissemination in space (≥2 MRI lesions in typical areas: periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, spinal cord) and time (new lesion on follow-up MRI or simultaneous gadolinium-enhancing and non-enhancing lesions). First-line DMT: interferon beta-1a or glatiramer acetate. Relapse: IV methylprednisolone 1 g/day for 3-5 days.

Common Traps in Neurology Questions

  • Confusing ischaemic with haemorrhagic stroke: remember haemorrhagic stroke often has headache, vomiting, and hypertension; CT without contrast is definitive.
  • Giving glucose before thiamine in suspected Wernicke’s encephalopathy: always give IV thiamine 100 mg first to prevent precipitating Korsakoff psychosis.
  • Using lumbar puncture in suspected raised ICP without prior CT: contraindicated if papilloedema, focal signs, or GCS <13 due to risk of coning.
  • Treating Bell’s palsy with steroids alone: add acyclovir if severe (House-Brackmann grade IV or V) or if Ramsay Hunt syndrome (vesicles in ear) suspected.
  • Assuming all headache with fever is meningitis: consider cerebral malaria (if travel history), typhoid, or sinusitis; check CSF only after ruling out contraindications.

How to Revise Neurology for the PLAB 1

Focus on acute neurological presentations: stroke, seizure, headache, and altered consciousness. Questions often present a clinical scenario with a key decision point (e.g., thrombolysis eligibility, choice of IVIG vs steroids, need for CT before LP). Memorise CSF profiles for meningitis, stroke thrombolysis exclusion criteria, and status epilepticus drug doses. Practise applying the ROSIER score and the Glasgow Coma Scale. Be ready to interpret basic CT head findings (hyperdense MCA sign, haemorrhage, midline shift). Review the UK guidelines from NICE for stroke and epilepsy. Time management: allocate more time to scenarios with multiple-choice options that test stepwise management rather than rare diseases.

Practise it: MedLumen has 49 Neurology questions for the PLAB 1, each with a full explanation and references.

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family after suddenly developing left-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. His symptoms began approximately 2 hours ago. On examination, he has a left hemiparesis, left homonymous hemianopia, and global aphasia. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg, and his heart rate is irregular at 95 bpm. A non-contrast CT head scan is immediately performed and shows no evidence of hemorrhage or established infarction. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A) Admit for observation and aspirin only.
B) Administer intravenous thrombolysis (alteplase). ✓ Correct
C) Perform an immediate carotid endarterectomy.
D) Start prophylactic anticonvulsants.
Explanation:
The patient presents with acute onset of focal neurological deficits consistent with an ischemic stroke, within the therapeutic window for intravenous thrombolysis (typically 4.5 hours from symptom onset, though specific criteria apply). The non-contrast CT shows no hemorrhage, making thrombolysis a strong consideration. The irregular pulse suggests atrial fibrillation, a common cause of embolic stroke. Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure for symptomatic carotid stenosis and is not an acute treatment for stroke. Prophylactic anticonvulsants are not routinely indicated in acute stroke without seizures. Aspirin would be given if thrombolysis is contraindicated or delayed, but thrombolysis is the priority given the time window.
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 28-year-old woman presents with severe, unilateral, pulsating headache associated with photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea. These episodes occur about twice a month, last for 4-72 hours, and are debilitating, forcing her to rest in a dark, quiet room. She occasionally sees flashing lights or zigzag lines in her visual field before the headache begins. There is no weakness or numbness. Physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Tension-type headache
B) Cluster headache
C) Migraine with aura
D) Trigeminal neuralgia
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 55-year-old man reports progressive difficulty with walking over the past 6 months. He states his legs feel stiff and weak, and he has noticed muscle twitching (fasciculations) in his arms and legs. On examination, he has spasticity, hyperreflexia, and extensor plantar responses in both lower limbs. There is also marked wasting and fasciculations in the small muscles of his hands and intrinsic foot muscles. Sensory examination is normal. His cognition is intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Cervical Myelopathy
B) Motor Neuron Disease (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)
C) Multiple Sclerosis
D) Parkinson's Disease
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 70-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son who is concerned about her memory. For the past year, she has been increasingly forgetful, misplacing items, repeating questions, and having difficulty managing her finances. She also seems to have lost interest in her hobbies and sometimes struggles with finding the right words during conversations. Her son denies any sudden changes, fever, or head injury. On examination, she is alert and oriented to person but not to time or place. Her neurological examination, including reflexes, sensation, and gait, is otherwise normal. Blood tests for thyroid function, B12, and folate are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A) Prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for depression.
B) Order an urgent MRI brain scan.
C) Refer for a comprehensive neuropsychological assessment and cognitive screening.
D) Initiate treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (e.g., Donepezil).
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation suddenly develops weakness on his right side, difficulty speaking, and facial drooping. He is brought to the emergency department within 30 minutes of symptom onset. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to perform immediately?

A) Lumbar puncture
B) Carotid Doppler ultrasound
C) CT scan of the brain without contrast
D) MRI scan of the brain
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Neurology Questions for PLAB 1 — FAQ

How many Neurology questions does MedLumen have for PLAB 1?

MedLumen currently has 49+ Neurology practice questions for PLAB 1, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

Are the Neurology questions updated for the 2026 PLAB 1 syllabus?

Yes. Our Neurology questions are mapped to the latest PLAB 1 blueprint and reviewed regularly so they stay aligned with the current 2026 syllabus.

Can I practise Neurology questions for free?

You can preview sample Neurology questions for free. A MedLumen subscription unlocks all 49+ Neurology questions, full answer explanations, and performance analytics for PLAB 1.

How should I revise Neurology for PLAB 1?

Practise Neurology questions in timed blocks, read the explanation for every answer (right or wrong), and use MedLumen's analytics to revisit your weak areas until your accuracy is consistently high.

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