Master Infectious Diseases
for MRCP Part 1
Access 50+ high-yield questions tailored for the 2026 syllabus. Includes AI-powered explanations and performance tracking.
What the MRCP Part 1 Tests in Infectious Diseases
MRCP Part 1 Infectious Diseases tests the ability to diagnose and manage common and serious infections in adults, focusing on clinical presentations, pathogen-specific treatments, antibiotic stewardship, and public health measures. Candidates must know first-line and alternative antimicrobials for community-acquired pneumonia, meningitis, urinary tract infections, skin and soft tissue infections, and sepsis. Key areas include HIV-related opportunistic infections (e.g., PCP, toxoplasmosis, CMV), tuberculosis (treatment regimens, latent TB criteria), viral hepatitis (serology interpretation, treatment thresholds), and tropical diseases (malaria, typhoid, schistosomiasis). Vaccination schedules, post-exposure prophylaxis (e.g., rabies, HIV), and infection control (e.g., MRSA, C. difficile) are frequently tested. Guidelines from NICE, BASHH, and WHO are referenced, with emphasis on drug interactions, adverse effects, and resistance patterns.
High-Yield Concepts
- Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) Severity Assessment: Use CURB-65: Confusion (new), Urea >7 mmol/L, Respiratory rate ≥30/min, BP systolic <90 or diastolic ≤60 mmHg, age ≥65. Score 0-1: home; 2: hospital; ≥3: severe, consider ICU. First-line antibiotics: amoxicillin 500mg-1g TDS for mild; doxycycline 200mg stat then 100mg OD if penicillin allergic. For moderate/severe: co-amoxiclav 1.2g TDS plus clarithromycin 500mg BD IV.
- Meningitis: Empirical Treatment and CSF Interpretation: Empirical: ceftriaxone 2g IV BD plus dexamethasone 10mg IV QDS (before or with first antibiotic) if suspected bacterial. Add amoxicillin 2g IV QDS if >55 years or immunocompromised (Listeria). CSF: bacterial – low glucose (<2.2 mmol/L), high protein (>1 g/L), neutrophils; viral – normal glucose, lymphocytosis; TB – low glucose, high protein, lymphocytosis. PCR for meningococcus, pneumococcus, enterovirus.
- HIV: Opportunistic Infection Prophylaxis and Treatment: Start ART when CD4 <350 cells/µL (now often regardless of CD4). PCP prophylaxis: co-trimoxazole 480mg OD if CD4 <200. Toxoplasma encephalitis: treat with pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + folinic acid; primary prophylaxis with co-trimoxazole if CD4 <100 and IgG positive. CMV retinitis: valganciclovir or ganciclovir; prophylaxis if CD4 <50. TB: treat with rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol; check for IRIS.
- Tuberculosis: Treatment Regimens and Latent TB: Active TB: 2 months of rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol (RIPE) then 4 months rifampicin + isoniazid. Monitor LFTs. Latent TB: treat if positive IGRA (T-SPOT.TB) or Mantoux >5mm (immunocompromised) or >10mm (other risk). Regimens: 3 months rifampicin + isoniazid daily, or 6 months isoniazid alone. Check for drug interactions (rifampicin induces CYP450).
- Sepsis: Definitions and Management: Use qSOFA: altered mental state, RR ≥22, SBP ≤100 mmHg – if ≥2, suspect sepsis. Take blood cultures, lactate, start broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour (e.g., piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5g QDS IV). Target MAP ≥65 mmHg with fluids and vasopressors (noradrenaline first). Source control (drain abscess, remove line). NICE guidelines: consider IV antibiotics for suspected sepsis without delay.
- Clostridioides difficile Infection: Diagnose with stool toxin test (GDH + toxin A/B). Severity: mild (WCC <15, creatinine normal) – oral metronidazole 400mg TDS 10 days; severe (WCC >15, creatinine >1.5x baseline) – oral vancomycin 125mg QDS 10 days; fulminant (ICU, ileus) – vancomycin 500mg QDS PO/NG + IV metronidazole 500mg TDS. Recurrence: fidaxomicin 200mg BD 10 days or bezlotoxumab.
- Malaria: Diagnosis and Treatment: Suspect in febrile traveler from endemic area. Thick and thin blood films; rapid diagnostic test (RDT) for P. falciparum. Uncomplicated P. falciparum: artemether-lumefantrine (Riamet) or atovaquone-proguanil (Malarone). Severe: IV artesunate 2.4 mg/kg at 0, 12, 24h then daily. Check G6PD before primaquine for P. vivax/ovale (radical cure).
- Viral Hepatitis: Serology and Management: Hep B: HBsAg positive = chronic; HBeAg positive = high replication; anti-HBc IgM = acute. Treat if HBV DNA >2000 IU/mL and ALT elevated (entecavir, tenofovir). Hep C: anti-HCV positive, then HCV RNA; genotype 1-6. Direct-acting antivirals (e.g., sofosbuvir/velpatasvir 12 weeks). Hep A: IgM anti-HAV; supportive care. Hep E: IgM anti-HEV; ribavirin in chronic (immunocompromised).
Common Traps in Infectious Diseases Questions
- Assuming all meningitis requires addition of ampicillin for Listeria; only if age >55, immunocompromised, or pregnant.
- Using co-trimoxazole for PCP prophylaxis without checking for G6PD deficiency or sulfa allergy.
- Thinking that all patients with HIV and fever have TB; always consider PCP, CMV, and IRIS first.
- Forgetting to stop prophylactic antibiotics after source control in sepsis; prolonged courses increase resistance and C. diff risk.
- Confusing latent TB treatment with active TB regimen; latent uses shorter, different drug combinations.
- Using vancomycin orally for C. diff without checking if patient has ileus (needs IV metronidazole).
How to Revise Infectious Diseases for the MRCP Part 1
For MRCP Part 1, prioritise memorising antibiotic first-line choices for common infections (CAP, UTI, cellulitis, meningitis) and their durations. Understand severity scores (CURB-65, qSOFA) and when to escalate therapy. Focus on HIV-related infection thresholds (CD4 counts for prophylaxis) and TB treatment phases. Practice interpreting serology panels (Hep B, HIV, syphilis) and CSF results. Questions often present a clinical scenario with a single lab value or travel history; link to the most likely pathogen and drug. Review NICE guidelines for sepsis and antibiotic stewardship. Use mnemonics for CURB-65 and qSOFA. Do not over-study rare tropical diseases; exam favours common presentations with classic epidemiology.
Practise it: MedLumen has 50 Infectious Diseases questions for the MRCP Part 1, each with a full explanation and references.
Sample Practice Questions
A 72-year-old man, a former smoker, presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of worsening cough productive of green sputum, shortness of breath, and fever. On examination, his temperature is 38.8°C, pulse 110 bpm, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation 90% on room air. Auscultation reveals crackles and bronchial breathing in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. His CURB-65 score is 3. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?
A 68-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents to his GP with a 3-day history of dysuria, frequency, and new-onset mild loin pain. He reports feeling generally unwell with a low-grade fever (38.1°C). Urine dipstick shows positive nitrites and leucocyte esterase. His eGFR is 55 mL/min/1.73m². Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen pending urine culture results?
A 35-year-old male with known HIV infection, who has been non-adherent to his antiretroviral therapy for several months, presents with a 2-week history of progressive shortness of breath, dry cough, and low-grade fever. His CD4 count from a recent clinic visit was 75 cells/µL. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral, diffuse interstitial infiltrates. His lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is significantly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A group of 15 attendees at a corporate event develop sudden onset severe nausea, projectile vomiting, and abdominal cramps within 3 hours of consuming a chicken salad sandwich from the buffet lunch. Diarrhoea is minimal or absent. Symptoms largely resolve within 24 hours. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
A 22-year-old university student is brought to the emergency department by friends due to a 10-hour history of severe headache, photophobia, and confusion. On examination, his temperature is 39.5°C, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, heart rate 118 bpm, and respiratory rate 24 breaths/min. He is drowsy but rousable, has significant neck stiffness, and a non-blanching purpuric rash is noted on his trunk and limbs. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step?
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Infectious Diseases Questions for MRCP Part 1 — FAQ
How many Infectious Diseases questions does MedLumen have for MRCP Part 1?
MedLumen currently has 50+ Infectious Diseases practice questions for MRCP Part 1, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.
Are the Infectious Diseases questions updated for the 2026 MRCP Part 1 syllabus?
Yes. Our Infectious Diseases questions are mapped to the latest MRCP Part 1 blueprint and reviewed regularly so they stay aligned with the current 2026 syllabus.
Can I practise Infectious Diseases questions for free?
You can preview sample Infectious Diseases questions for free. A MedLumen subscription unlocks all 50+ Infectious Diseases questions, full answer explanations, and performance analytics for MRCP Part 1.
How should I revise Infectious Diseases for MRCP Part 1?
Practise Infectious Diseases questions in timed blocks, read the explanation for every answer (right or wrong), and use MedLumen's analytics to revisit your weak areas until your accuracy is consistently high.