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Medically reviewed by Dr. Danyal Sadeeq Gumoriani — MBBS, MRCP (UK)
Reviewed Jun 2026 · Editorial policy
HIGH YIELD NOTES Updated June 2026 · ~5 min read

What the MRCP Part 1 Tests in Haematology

MRCP Part 1 Haematology tests the ability to diagnose and manage common haematological disorders based on clinical presentations, full blood count and film findings, coagulation profiles, and relevant immunophenotyping or genetic results. Candidates must know diagnostic criteria for conditions like polycythaemia vera, essential thrombocythaemia, and myelodysplastic syndromes; first-line therapies including anticoagulation choices (DOACs vs warfarin) and transfusion triggers; and interpretation of haematinics, haemoglobin electrophoresis, and direct antiglobulin test. Emphasis is on linking laboratory abnormalities to clinical scenarios, recognising haematological emergencies (e.g., DIC, hyperviscosity, tumour lysis syndrome), and applying BCSH or NICE guidelines for common conditions like iron deficiency anaemia, venous thromboembolism, and immune thrombocytopenia.

High-Yield Concepts

  • Diagnostic criteria for polycythaemia vera (PV): Major criteria: Hb >165 g/L (men) or >160 g/L (women) OR Hct >0.49 (men) or >0.48 (women); JAK2 V617F mutation. Minor criterion: low serum erythropoietin. Diagnosis requires both major criteria, or first major plus minor. First-line: venesection to target Hct <0.45, plus low-dose aspirin if no contraindication.
  • Management of immune thrombocytopenia (ITP): First-line: prednisolone 1 mg/kg/day for 2-4 weeks then taper, or IVIG 1 g/kg if bleeding/need for rapid rise. Second-line: thrombopoietin receptor agonists (eltrombopag, romiplostim) or rituximab. Splenectomy reserved for refractory cases. Platelet count target >20-30 x10⁹/L unless bleeding.
  • Anticoagulation in venous thromboembolism (VTE): First-line: DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban) for initial and maintenance therapy, avoiding in severe renal impairment (CrCl <15 mL/min). Warfarin used for mechanical heart valves, antiphospholipid syndrome (target INR 2-3 or 3-4). Duration: provoked VTE 3 months; unprovoked VTE at least 3 months, consider extended therapy.
  • Diagnosis and management of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): Diagnosis: ISTH DIC score (platelets, PT, fibrinogen, D-dimer) >5 indicates overt DIC. Treatment: treat underlying cause; platelet transfusion if <50 x10⁹/L with bleeding; cryoprecipitate if fibrinogen <1.5 g/L; FFP if PT/APTT prolonged and bleeding. Avoid heparin unless overt thrombosis.
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis interpretation in thalassaemia: Beta thalassaemia major: HbF >90%, absent/minimal HbA. Beta thalassaemia trait: HbA2 >3.5% (usually 4-6%), HbF mildly raised. Alpha thalassaemia trait: normal HbA2, low MCV/MCH, no HbH on electrophoresis (confirmed by genetic testing). HbH disease: fast-moving HbH band, Hb Bart's in neonates.
  • Transfusion thresholds and complications: Restrictive threshold: Hb <70 g/L in stable patients (80 g/L if cardiac disease). Massive transfusion protocol: 1:1:1 ratio of RBCs:FFP:platelets. Acute transfusion reaction: stop transfusion, check ABO compatibility, manage anaphylaxis with IM adrenaline. TRALI: acute hypoxaemia within 6 hours of transfusion, bilateral infiltrates, no cardiac cause.
  • Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) risk stratification and treatment: IPSS-R uses cytopenias, marrow blasts, cytogenetics (e.g., -5/del5q, -7, complex). Low-risk: supportive care (growth factors, transfusions, lenalidomide for del5q). High-risk: hypomethylating agents (azacitidine) or allogeneic stem cell transplant. Iron chelation if >20 units transfused and ferritin >1000 ng/mL.
  • Haemolytic anaemia workup: Raised LDH, unconjugated bilirubin, reticulocytosis, low haptoglobin. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) positive: autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (warm AIHA: IgG, responds to steroids; cold AIHA: IgM, avoid cold, rituximab). DAT negative: consider hereditary spherocytosis (family history, osmotic fragility test), G6PD deficiency (X-linked, triggered by oxidants), or microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (schistocytes, low platelets).

Common Traps in Haematology Questions

  • Confusing iron deficiency anaemia (low ferritin, high TIBC) with anaemia of chronic disease (low ferritin only in severe cases, low TIBC, high hepcidin).
  • Assuming a normal PT/APTT excludes all bleeding disorders: von Willebrand disease may have normal PT/APTT, requiring vWF antigen and activity assay.
  • Giving vitamin K alone for warfarin reversal in major bleeding: must give prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) 25-50 U/kg plus IV vitamin K 5-10 mg.
  • Missing hyperviscosity syndrome in Waldenström's macroglobulinaemia: present with blurred vision, headache, epistaxis, and fundoscopy showing 'sausage-like' veins; treat with plasmapheresis.
  • Forgetting that heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) requires stopping all heparin and starting a non-heparin anticoagulant (e.g., argatroban, danaparoid), not just monitoring platelets.
  • Interpreting a positive D-dimer as diagnostic for VTE: D-dimer is non-specific, elevated in pregnancy, malignancy, and post-surgery; use Wells score to pre-test probability.

How to Revise Haematology for the MRCP Part 1

For MRCP Part 1 Haematology, prioritise memorising diagnostic criteria and first-line treatments for common conditions: PV, ET, ITP, VTE, and haemolytic anaemias. Focus on interpreting full blood count differentials, blood film descriptions, and coagulation profiles in clinical vignettes. Practise linking lab findings to specific disorders (e.g., microcytic hypochromic anaemia with raised HbA2 = beta thalassaemia trait). Be comfortable with transfusion triggers and complications, as well as the ISTH DIC score. Questions often present as 'which test confirms diagnosis?' or 'what is the next management step?'—avoid over-investigating when simple criteria suffice. Review BCSH guidelines for anticoagulation in special populations (cancer, pregnancy) and know the differences between warm and cold AIHA. Do not neglect haematological emergencies like DIC, hyperviscosity, and tumour lysis syndrome.

Practise it: MedLumen has 50 Haematology questions for the MRCP Part 1, each with a full explanation and references.

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 45-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, and menorrhagia. Her haemoglobin is 8.5 g/dL, MCV 72 fL, MCH 24 pg. Serum ferritin is 8 ng/mL (normal range 15-150 ng/mL), and transferrin saturation is 10%. Peripheral blood film shows microcytic hypochromic red cells with anisocytosis and poikilocytosis. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A) Intravenous iron infusion.
B) Blood transfusion.
C) Referral for endoscopic evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract.
D) Oral iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate. ✓ Correct
Explanation:
The patient presents with symptoms and laboratory findings highly suggestive of severe iron deficiency anaemia (microcytic hypochromic anaemia, very low ferritin, low transferrin saturation). Menorrhagia is a common cause. Oral iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is the first-line treatment for iron deficiency anaemia, provided the patient can tolerate it and there are no severe malabsorption issues. Intravenous iron is reserved for those who cannot tolerate oral iron, have severe malabsorption, or require rapid correction. Blood transfusion is for unstable patients with severe symptoms or profound anaemia (usually Hb < 7 g/dL) or those with ongoing bleeding and significant cardiovascular instability. Endoscopic evaluation is important to identify the cause of chronic blood loss, especially in patients who do not respond to iron or have other GI symptoms, but the immediate management of the anaemia is iron supplementation.
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 68-year-old man presents with progressive fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and recurrent infections over the past 3 months. Physical examination reveals splenomegaly and palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Complete blood count shows a WBC count of 75 x 10^9/L with 85% mature lymphocytes, Hb 9.2 g/dL, and platelet count 75 x 10^9/L. A peripheral blood film shows smudge cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma.
B) Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML).
C) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL).
D) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL).
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 32-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and petechial rash. Blood tests show haemoglobin 8.0 g/dL, platelet count 15 x 10^9/L, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1200 U/L (normal < 250 U/L). A peripheral blood film reveals schistocytes. Renal function is mildly impaired. Coagulation studies (PT, APTT, fibrinogen) are normal. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A) Administration of fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
B) High-dose corticosteroids.
C) Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis).
D) Platelet transfusion.
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 55-year-old male is admitted with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left leg. He has no prior history of thrombotic events. His past medical history is significant for several episodes of unexplained abdominal pain and a recent 10 kg weight loss. Physical examination reveals mild jaundice and hepatomegaly. Baseline investigations show Hb 10.5 g/dL, MCV 88 fL, WBC 14.0 x 10^9/L with a left shift, and platelet count 550 x 10^9/L. Liver function tests show elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a pancreatic mass. What is the most likely underlying cause of his DVT?

A) Antiphospholipid syndrome.
B) Factor V Leiden mutation.
C) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).
D) Malignancy-associated hypercoagulability (Trousseau's syndrome).
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 28-year-old female presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe pallor, dyspnoea, and dark urine following treatment with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. Her medical history is unremarkable. Laboratory tests show Hb 6.8 g/dL, reticulocyte count 15%, total bilirubin 4.5 mg/dL (unconjugated dominant), and haptoglobin < 10 mg/dL. A direct antiglobulin test (DAT/Coombs test) is negative. Peripheral blood film shows 'bite cells' and 'blister cells'. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH).
B) Hereditary Spherocytosis.
C) Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency.
D) Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia (AIHA).
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Haematology Questions for MRCP Part 1 — FAQ

How many Haematology questions does MedLumen have for MRCP Part 1?

MedLumen currently has 50+ Haematology practice questions for MRCP Part 1, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

Are the Haematology questions updated for the 2026 MRCP Part 1 syllabus?

Yes. Our Haematology questions are mapped to the latest MRCP Part 1 blueprint and reviewed regularly so they stay aligned with the current 2026 syllabus.

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How should I revise Haematology for MRCP Part 1?

Practise Haematology questions in timed blocks, read the explanation for every answer (right or wrong), and use MedLumen's analytics to revisit your weak areas until your accuracy is consistently high.

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