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Medically reviewed by Dr. Danyal Sadeeq Gumoriani — MBBS, MRCP (UK)
Reviewed Jun 2026 · Editorial policy
HIGH YIELD NOTES Updated June 2026 · ~5 min read

What the PMDC NLE Step 1 Tests in Obs & Gyn

Obs & Gyn on the PMDC NLE Step 1 tests the candidate's ability to manage common obstetric emergencies (e.g., eclampsia, postpartum haemorrhage, shoulder dystocia), interpret antenatal screening (e.g., OGTT for GDM, anomaly scans), and apply evidence-based intrapartum care (e.g., partogram use, induction of labour). Gynaecology focuses on menstrual disorders (e.g., PCOS, endometriosis), pelvic infections (PID, Bartholin's abscess), contraception (COC, IUCD, implant), and menopause management (HRT risks/benefits). Candidates must recall diagnostic criteria (e.g., Rotterdam for PCOS, FIGO for abnormal uterine bleeding), first-line treatments (e.g., tranexamic acid for heavy menstrual bleeding, metformin for GDM), and surgical indications (e.g., ectopic pregnancy – salpingectomy vs. salpingostomy). Emphasis is on clinical decision-making, not pure recall.

High-Yield Concepts

  • Eclampsia & Severe Pre-eclampsia: First-line anticonvulsant is IV magnesium sulphate (loading dose 4g over 5-10 minutes, then 1g/hour for 24 hours). Severe pre-eclampsia: BP ≥160/110 mmHg with proteinuria ≥300 mg/24h; treat with oral labetalol or IV hydralazine. Deliver after 34 weeks; before 34 weeks, give corticosteroids (betamethasone 12mg IM x2, 24h apart) for fetal lung maturity.
  • Postpartum Haemorrhage (PPH): Primary PPH: blood loss >500 mL (vaginal) or >1000 mL (caesarean) within 24 hours. Active management: IV oxytocin (10 IU slow IV/IM) first-line; if refractory, ergometrine (0.5mg IM) or carboprost (250mcg IM q15min, max 8 doses). Uterine balloon tamponade (Bakri balloon) or B-Lynch suture if medical fails.
  • Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM): Screen at 24-28 weeks with 75g OGTT; diagnostic thresholds: fasting ≥5.1 mmol/L, 1-hour ≥10.0, 2-hour ≥8.5 mmol/L (WHO 2013). First-line treatment: lifestyle modification + metformin (500mg BD, max 2500mg/day); if inadequate, add insulin (e.g., NPH). Target fasting glucose <5.3 mmol/L, 2-hour postprandial <6.7 mmol/L.
  • Ectopic Pregnancy: Triad: amenorrhoea, unilateral pelvic pain, vaginal bleeding. Diagnosis: transvaginal ultrasound (empty uterus + adnexal mass) + serial β-hCG (rise <66% in 48 hours). First-line: laparoscopic salpingectomy if contralateral tube normal; salpingostomy if desired fertility. Medical: methotrexate (50mg/m² IM) if unruptured, mass <35mm, no fetal cardiac activity, β-hCG <5000 IU/L.
  • Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS): Rotterdam criteria: 2 of 3 – oligo/anovulation, clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (≥12 follicles per ovary or volume >10 mL). First-line for anovulatory infertility: letrozole (2.5-7.5mg cycle days 3-7) over clomiphene. For hirsutism: COC (e.g., ethinylestradiol + cyproterone acetate) or spironolactone (50-100mg BD).
  • Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (AUB) – PALM-COEIN: FIGO classification: structural (Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy) and non-structural (Coagulopathy, Ovulatory, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not classified). Heavy menstrual bleeding: first-line tranexamic acid (1g TDS for 5 days) or mefenamic acid (500mg TDS). If fails, consider LNG-IUS (Mirena) or endometrial ablation.
  • Shoulder Dystocia: Risk factors: macrosomia, diabetes, prolonged second stage. Management: McRoberts' manoeuvre (hyperflexion of thighs) + suprapubic pressure (not fundal). If fails: delivery of posterior arm (Woods' screw) or Zavanelli manoeuvre (last resort). Document: head-to-body interval >60 seconds, use of manoeuvres, neonatal injury (e.g., Erb's palsy, clavicle fracture).
  • Cervical Cancer Screening & HPV: Screening: cervical cytology (Pap smear) every 3 years (ages 25-49) then every 5 years (ages 50-64) in NHS; HPV primary screening (HPV test first, cytology if positive for 16/18). Abnormal results: colposcopy + biopsy. Treatment: CIN1 – observe; CIN2/3 – LLETZ excision. HPV vaccine (Gardasil 9) for ages 12-13, covers 9 types including 16/18/6/11.

Common Traps in Obs & Gyn Questions

  • Confusing pre-eclampsia with gestational hypertension: pre-eclampsia requires proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction, not just hypertension.
  • Using oxytocin before delivery of the placenta in PPH: it is given after placental delivery to avoid retained placenta or uterine inversion.
  • Forgetting that magnesium sulphate is the first-line for eclampsia, not diazepam or phenytoin (which are second-line in resource-limited settings).
  • Assuming all ectopic pregnancies require surgery: methotrexate is appropriate for stable, unruptured cases with low β-hCG (<5000) and no fetal cardiac activity.
  • Misinterpreting PCOS ultrasound criteria: polycystic ovaries alone (without hyperandrogenism or anovulation) are not diagnostic; also, the follicle count threshold is ≥12 per ovary (not 10).
  • Neglecting to check renal function before starting metformin in GDM: contraindicated if eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73m².

How to Revise Obs & Gyn for the PMDC NLE Step 1

Focus on clinical scenarios where you must choose between two similar management options (e.g., oxytocin vs. ergometrine for PPH; methotrexate vs. surgery for ectopic). Memorise exact diagnostic cut-offs (OGTT values, β-hCG thresholds, BP targets) and drug doses (magnesium sulphate, metformin, tranexamic acid). Practice interpreting partogram abnormalities (e.g., prolonged latent phase, arrest of descent) and deciding when to intervene (e.g., augmentation with oxytocin vs. caesarean for fetal distress). Gynae questions often test stepwise management of AUB or PCOS — know first-line, second-line, and surgical options. Review FIGO staging for cervical and endometrial cancer briefly, but prioritise screening protocols and HPV vaccination schedules. Use past PMDC-style MCQs to build speed in identifying the one correct step in a clinical algorithm.

Practise it: MedLumen has 50 Obs & Gyn questions for the PMDC NLE Step 1, each with a full explanation and references.

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 28-year-old G1P0 woman at 38 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She denies any trauma. Her blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and she is experiencing continuous uterine contractions. Fetal heart rate monitoring shows late decelerations and decreased variability. On speculum examination, a small amount of dark red blood is noted. Vaginal examination reveals a tender, rigid uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Placenta previa
B) Vasa previa
C) Placental abruption ✓ Correct
D) Uterine rupture
Explanation:
The classic presentation of placental abruption includes sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding (which can be concealed or revealed), a tender and rigid uterus, and signs of fetal distress (e.g., late decelerations, decreased variability). Maternal hypertension is also a risk factor. Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture presents with sudden severe pain, fetal distress, and often a palpable fetal part or loss of uterine tone. Vasa previa is rare and presents with painless vaginal bleeding coinciding with rupture of membranes and rapid fetal distress.
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 35-year-old G3P2 woman presents for her routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated vaginal deliveries. She reports feeling well, but her fundal height measures 32 cm. An ultrasound performed reveals a single live fetus with appropriate biometry for 28 weeks, but an amniotic fluid index (AFI) of 28 cm. The patient denies any leakage of fluid or contractions. Her glucose tolerance test results are pending. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A) Amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping
B) Referral for fetal echocardiography and detailed anomaly scan
C) Administration of corticosteroids for lung maturity
D) Immediate induction of labor
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 22-year-old nulliparous woman presents with a 6-month history of increasingly painful periods, deep dyspareunia, and chronic pelvic pain. She also reports difficulty conceiving for the past year. Her physical examination reveals a retroverted uterus with uterosacral ligament tenderness and nodularity. A transvaginal ultrasound is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Endometriosis
C) Adenomyosis
D) Uterine fibroids
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 65-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a 3-month history of vaginal bleeding. She has no previous history of hormone replacement therapy. Her medical history includes well-controlled hypertension. On physical examination, her cervix appears healthy, and the uterus is not enlarged. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals an endometrial thickness of 8 mm. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A) Prescribe topical estrogen cream
B) Reassurance and follow-up in 6 months
C) Order a CT scan of the pelvis
D) Endometrial biopsy
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 30-year-old G1P0 woman at 10 weeks gestation presents with persistent nausea and vomiting, leading to a 5 kg weight loss. She also reports experiencing a brownish vaginal discharge for the past week. On examination, her uterus is larger than expected for gestational age, and her blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and her serum beta-hCG level is significantly elevated (250,000 mIU/mL). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Hyperemesis gravidarum with multiple gestation
B) Threatened abortion
C) Hydatidiform mole
D) Ectopic pregnancy
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Obs & Gyn Questions for PMDC NLE Step 1 — FAQ

How many Obs & Gyn questions does MedLumen have for PMDC NLE Step 1?

MedLumen currently has 50+ Obs & Gyn practice questions for PMDC NLE Step 1, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

Are the Obs & Gyn questions updated for the 2026 PMDC NLE Step 1 syllabus?

Yes. Our Obs & Gyn questions are mapped to the latest PMDC NLE Step 1 blueprint and reviewed regularly so they stay aligned with the current 2026 syllabus.

Can I practise Obs & Gyn questions for free?

You can preview sample Obs & Gyn questions for free. A MedLumen subscription unlocks all 50+ Obs & Gyn questions, full answer explanations, and performance analytics for PMDC NLE Step 1.

How should I revise Obs & Gyn for PMDC NLE Step 1?

Practise Obs & Gyn questions in timed blocks, read the explanation for every answer (right or wrong), and use MedLumen's analytics to revisit your weak areas until your accuracy is consistently high.

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