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HIGH YIELD NOTES Updated June 2026 · ~5 min read

What the FMGE Tests in Obs & Gyn

The FMGE Obs & Gyn section tests your ability to manage common obstetric and gynaecological emergencies, interpret antenatal screening results, and apply evidence-based guidelines for labour, postpartum care, and gynaecological oncology. You must demonstrate knowledge of WHO partograph use, Bishop's score, criteria for pre-eclampsia (BP ≥140/90, proteinuria ≥300 mg/24h), gestational diabetes screening (75 g OGTT at 24–28 weeks), and management of ectopic pregnancy (transvaginal ultrasound, serial β-hCG, methotrexate or salpingectomy). In gynaecology, focus on abnormal uterine bleeding (PALM-COEIN classification), cervical cancer screening (HPV co-testing, colposcopy), and emergency contraception (levonorgestrel 1.5 mg, copper IUD). Questions often present a clinical vignette requiring immediate triage—e.g., antepartum haemorrhage, shoulder dystocia, or ruptured ectopic—and expect you to choose the next best diagnostic step or definitive treatment. Drug doses, gestational age cut-offs, and surgical indications are heavily tested.

High-Yield Concepts

  • Pre-eclampsia diagnosis and management: Diagnosis: BP ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks with proteinuria (≥300 mg/24h) or end-organ dysfunction. Severe features: BP ≥160/110, platelets <100,000, elevated LFTs, pulmonary oedema. First-line treatment: labetalol 200 mg oral, or IV hydralazine 5 mg; magnesium sulfate 4 g IV loading then 1 g/h for 24 hours for seizure prophylaxis. Delivery recommended at 37 weeks for mild, 34 weeks for severe pre-eclampsia.
  • Shoulder dystocia management: Recognise: turtle sign, failure of delivery after head. HELPERR mnemonic: Help (call for assistance), Episiotomy (if needed), Legs (McRoberts' manoeuvre), suprapubic Pressure (not fundal), Enter (internal rotational manoeuvres: Rubin II, Woods' corkscrew), Roll (all-fours position). Avoid fundal pressure. Document time and manoeuvres.
  • Ectopic pregnancy diagnosis and treatment: Suspect in first trimester with abdominal pain, adnexal tenderness, and empty uterus on transvaginal ultrasound. β-hCG discriminatory zone: >1500 IU/L with no intrauterine pregnancy suggests ectopic. Treatment: haemodynamically stable, unruptured, mass <3.5 cm, no fetal cardiac activity → methotrexate 50 mg/m² IM (single-dose protocol). Otherwise, laparoscopic salpingectomy.
  • Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) – PALM-COEIN: Structural causes: Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma (submucosal most relevant), Malignancy/hyperplasia. Non-structural: Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not yet classified. First-line for ovulatory AUB: tranexamic acid 1 g TID or combined oral contraceptive. Endometrial biopsy indicated if age >45 or risk factors (obesity, PCOS, tamoxifen).
  • Cervical cancer screening and management: Screening: HPV co-testing (HPV DNA + cytology) every 5 years ages 30–65; if HPV 16/18 positive, refer for colposcopy. Abnormal cytology (ASC-US with high-risk HPV, LSIL, HSIL) → colposcopy with biopsy. Treatment: CIN2/3 → loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) or cold knife conisation. Stage IA1: simple hysterectomy if fertility not desired.
  • Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) screening and management: Screen at 24–28 weeks with 75 g OGTT. Diagnosis: fasting ≥5.1 mmol/L, 1-hour ≥10.0 mmol/L, 2-hour ≥8.5 mmol/L (any one value). First-line management: medical nutrition therapy + self-monitoring blood glucose. If fasting >5.3 mmol/L or postprandial >6.7 mmol/L, start metformin or insulin (insulin preferred in pregnancy). Target: fasting <5.3 mmol/L, 1-hour <7.8 mmol/L.
  • Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) management: Defined as blood loss >500 mL vaginal delivery or >1000 mL caesarean. Most common cause: uterine atony. First-line: uterine massage, oxytocin 10 IU IM/IV (slow push), then ergometrine 0.5 mg IM (contraindicated in hypertension), carboprost 250 mcg IM (asthma contraindication). If ongoing: intrauterine balloon tamponade (Bakri), uterine artery embolisation, or surgical compression sutures (B-Lynch).
  • Bishop's score and induction of labour: Bishop's score assesses cervical favourability: 0–3 unfavourable, ≥6 favourable. Components: dilation, effacement, station, consistency, position. Induction methods: favourable cervix → amniotomy + oxytocin; unfavourable → prostaglandin E2 (dinoprostone) 3 mg vaginal pessary or misoprostol 25 mcg vaginally every 4–6 hours. Oxytocin regimen: start at 1–2 mU/min, increase by 1–2 mU/min every 30 min to max 20 mU/min.

Common Traps in Obs & Gyn Questions

  • Confusing pre-eclampsia with gestational hypertension: gestational hypertension has BP ≥140/90 but no proteinuria or end-organ damage.
  • Using fundal pressure in shoulder dystocia – this can cause uterine rupture or fetal injury; only suprapubic pressure is correct.
  • Assuming a positive urine pregnancy test always means intrauterine pregnancy – ectopic or molar pregnancy can also be positive.
  • Treating AUB with tranexamic acid before ruling out structural causes – always perform ultrasound first.
  • Forgetting that cervical cancer screening is not recommended before age 21, regardless of sexual activity.
  • Administering ergometrine to a patient with pre-eclampsia – it is contraindicated due to vasoconstriction and hypertension.

How to Revise Obs & Gyn for the FMGE

Prioritise high-stakes emergencies: PPH, pre-eclampsia, shoulder dystocia, and ectopic rupture. Memorise diagnostic cut-offs (BP, proteinuria, β-hCG, OGTT) and first-line drug doses (oxytocin, MgSO4, methotrexate). Questions are often scenario-based: you must identify the condition from a brief history and then choose the immediate next step (e.g., 'What is the best next step in management?'). Practise interpreting partograph abnormalities (prolonged latent phase, arrest disorders) and Bishop's score components. For gynaecology, focus on AUB classification and cervical cancer staging (FIGO). Use mnemonics (HELPERR, PALM-COEIN) to recall sequences. Review NICE/WHO guidelines for induction and GDM. Spend extra time on surgical indications (e.g., when to do caesarean vs. instrumental delivery) and contraceptive methods (IUD, implant, DMPA).

Practise it: MedLumen has 50 Obs & Gyn questions for the FMGE, each with a full explanation and references.

Sample Practice Questions

Question 1 FULLY WORKED EXAMPLE

A 32-year-old G2P1 woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with a persistent headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain for the past 24 hours. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, and urine dipstick shows 2+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive. Fetal heart rate is reassuring. What is the MOST appropriate immediate management plan for this patient?

A) Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate, monitor blood pressure, and plan for delivery within 24-48 hours. ✓ Correct
B) Administer intravenous hydralazine to lower blood pressure rapidly, and discharge home if symptoms resolve.
C) Admit for observation, start oral labetalol, and plan for induction of labor at 37 weeks.
D) Perform an immediate emergency Caesarean section due to severe pre-eclampsia.
Explanation:
This patient presents with severe pre-eclampsia (BP ≥ 160/110 mmHg, proteinuria, and symptoms like headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, hyperreflexia). The immediate management involves admitting the patient, administering intravenous magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, and planning for delivery within a short timeframe (usually within 24-48 hours for severe pre-eclampsia at this gestation). Option C is incorrect as oral labetalol alone is insufficient for severe pre-eclampsia, and delaying delivery to 37 weeks is not appropriate given the severity. Option D is incorrect; while delivery is indicated, an immediate emergency C-section is not mandated unless there are signs of maternal or fetal compromise requiring urgent intervention (e.g., eclampsia, abruption, severe fetal distress), which are not described here. Option B is dangerous; rapid discharge is inappropriate for severe pre-eclampsia.
Question 2 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 28-year-old G1P0 woman has just delivered a healthy full-term infant vaginally. Fifteen minutes postpartum, she experiences heavy vaginal bleeding, with an estimated blood loss of 800 mL. Her uterus is palpable above the umbilicus and feels boggy. Vital signs are BP 90/50 mmHg, HR 110 bpm. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this patient's condition?

A) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics to prevent puerperal sepsis.
B) Initiate a massive transfusion protocol with blood products.
C) Administer intravenous oxytocin and perform vigorous uterine massage.
D) Prepare for immediate surgical uterine exploration.
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 3 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 26-year-old G1P1 woman is 3 weeks postpartum. Her husband reports that she has become withdrawn, has difficulty sleeping, expresses persistent feelings of inadequacy as a mother, and occasionally mentions thoughts of harming herself or the baby, though she denies any intent to act on these thoughts. She does not report any hallucinations or delusions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Postpartum depression
C) Postpartum psychosis
D) Postpartum blues
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 4 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 24-year-old nulligravida presents with a 2-year history of irregular menstrual cycles (oligomenorrhea), increasing facial and body hair (hirsutism), and difficulty conceiving for 1 year. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². Laboratory tests reveal elevated total testosterone levels. A pelvic ultrasound shows multiple small follicles (10-12 per ovary, 2-9 mm in diameter) in both ovaries. Based on the Rotterdam criteria, which of the following is NOT an essential criterion for the diagnosis of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) in this patient?

A) Insulin resistance
B) Clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism
C) Oligo-anovulation
D) Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.
Question 5 TRY IT — TAP AN ANSWER

A 55-year-old G3P3 postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal spotting for 2 months. She has been postmenopausal for 5 years and is not on hormone replacement therapy. Her medical history includes well-controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals an endometrial thickness of 12 mm. What is the MOST appropriate next step in her management?

A) Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed endometritis.
B) Perform an endometrial biopsy.
C) Initiate combined oral contraceptive pills to regulate bleeding.
D) Reassure the patient and advise observation for another month.
💡 Pick an answer above to see if you're right — the full explanation unlocks instantly.

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Obs & Gyn Questions for FMGE — FAQ

How many Obs & Gyn questions does MedLumen have for FMGE?

MedLumen currently has 50+ Obs & Gyn practice questions for FMGE, each with a detailed explanation so you understand the reasoning behind every answer.

Are the Obs & Gyn questions updated for the 2026 FMGE syllabus?

Yes. Our Obs & Gyn questions are mapped to the latest FMGE blueprint and reviewed regularly so they stay aligned with the current 2026 syllabus.

Can I practise Obs & Gyn questions for free?

You can preview sample Obs & Gyn questions for free. A MedLumen subscription unlocks all 50+ Obs & Gyn questions, full answer explanations, and performance analytics for FMGE.

How should I revise Obs & Gyn for FMGE?

Practise Obs & Gyn questions in timed blocks, read the explanation for every answer (right or wrong), and use MedLumen's analytics to revisit your weak areas until your accuracy is consistently high.

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